Penal Substitution
Why don't we allow penal substitution in society? Why is it, for example, that we don't allow a husband to serve a wife's gaol sentence? Indeed, why don't we allow someone to pay another's fine? If I just write a cheque to the magistrate's court and say 'that's to cover the next few people that you fine' they won't accept it. Of course, I can actually give the money to the guilty person and let him or her pay the fine, but this isn't analogous to the Protestant doctrine of penal substitution; in fact, it is analogous to the Roman-Catholic idea that Christ makes satisfaction for us and we offer that sacrifice to God in the mass.
1 Comments:
I know this is irrelevant to the question on penal substitution, but I wondered if you could ask a question on my behalf?
My question is: do we commit the etymological fallacy when we're trying to determine the original meaning of the biblical author? And if so, how should Christians view the etymological fallacy?
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